I am having some trouble understanding the regression output. The author used an underlying statement to interpret his results. The baseline regression model is Cash holding = alpha + Beta1(Economic Policy Instability = PU) + CV + error term. The main hypothesis expects a positive relationship between cash holding and economic policies. The coefficient value of PU = 0.016***. I am having trouble understanding the way he justified his statistics.
The economic effect of policy uncertainty on corporate cash holdings is also important. Our calculation indicates that holding other variables fixed at their sample means, a one standard deviation increase in policy uncertainty above its sample mean is associated with a 0.39 to 0.64 percentage-point increase in corporate cash holdings, which is equivalent to 2.7% to 4.6% of the sample mean.
Kindly assist me to understand these tricky econometrics.