19 September 2012 12 142 Report

It is said that schizophrenia, despite having poor marital success rates, still exists in the human population. When the genes for schizophrenia do not guarantee positive reproductive success then why do they exist in the human genome? Also, it is said that schizophrenia is a new disease - having its origins some 300-400 years with the advent of industrial revolution/modernization. Earlier to that, it may be existing as a predisposition, like trait of psychoticism or schizotypy, expressed more in form of religiousness or mysticism.

How much empirical evidence is present for these claims? Please give some sources or references. Are there any texts which describe evolution of clinical syndromes?

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