I am starting a project looking at people's perception of sleep vs objective PSG measurements. I am looking for previous research that might indicate cut off points used for having good or poor perception on sleep time (sleep onset and total sleep time) between objective and subjective sleep.
e.g is estimating 40min sleep onset compared to a 10min sleep onset what is the cut off to classify an over estimation of sleep time
Yeah I am having trouble myself as my supervisor was the one asking so need to get my own head around it. We are exploring initially if there is a gender difference between sleep perception in relation to total sleep time and sleep onset. So using their subjective response (questionnaire asking for their estimates on sleep) to how long they fell asleep and how long they slept to and comparing to an objective PSG.
It's for the statistics, they were asking if there had been other studies that had any cut offs used about what constitutes poor perception from the participant (very few studies in general). So we need a cut off point so we can categorise good vs poor sleep perception.
If they estimated it took them 40 mins (questionnaire) to fall asleep, but in reality it only took them 10mins (PSG) to fall asleep would that be considered poor or good perception on their sleep. Where do we put the cut off between a good estimate vs poor estimate of sleep?
It may be this is a question we find out or find there needs better information about.
What about just correlating objectively-measured sleep latency (PSG) with subjective sleep latency? You could compare the correlation in men with the correlation in women. You'd use an r-to-z transformation (http://vassarstats.net/rdiff.html) to compare the difference in the correlations. Let me know if you have any questions.
Brian
I agree with Brian Gonzalez. Look at studies using MSLT. I know that women are known to be able to remember their dreams better than men
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