Considering that AHP and ANP are flawed methods, as various researchers have expressed and proved in RG. I wonder which is the reason that many people are still using them.
Other than the relative 'easiness of use' - just try to model not even a complex problem, but a simple one with many alternatives and a large number of criteria', which are the advantages of these methods?
Is it because they are the most popular and by far used?
If that is the reason we are paying indeed a high price for it.
Look at this:
* They can't consider complex problems, because they are not designed to take into account some elemental facts such as a very large number of criteria,
(well they can, but at what labor cost and time?)
* AHP considers that criteria are independent, when in most cases they are not.
* They consider that once a set of criteria is given different levels of importance through the so-called 'weights' (which are no weights but trade-offs factors), they are computed without considering the alternatives. In consequence, it is assumed that they are constant, irrelevant of the pairs of alternatives that are later analyzed. It could be true, but it also could be false, in most cases, especially with a large number of alternatives. It is obvious that if I establish preferences they have to be related to something, not as AHP does, related to the main objective to reach. To say that regarding the goal of better transportation, the DM is expressing that always speed is preferred to cost. I wonder related to which of the several alternatives, because it could be true for a pair, say a car or a bus, but not to another pair such as the train and the airplane
* They can't consider correlation between criteria, very common in real problems, nor dependencies among alternatives, also very common.
* Where is the logic of a method that given quantitative data, just dismisses it, and prefer to uses preferences?
* Where is the logic of a method that tries and is forced to reach a transitive relationship between preferences, even with the 10 % margin, when the same issue in the real world is normally intransitive?
* Which is the rationality of a method that when the DM is asked why he established a certain preference, he can also answered that he followed his/her intuitions? Very technical indeed!
This word 'intuition' to define the action of a DM is not mine, but from one of the most known AHP supporters.
I could continue, but I think that this is enough to illustrate the inconsistencies of these methods.
Of course, I recognize that I can be mistaken, however, I will be the first in recognize that I am wrong, if some colleague demonstrates that.
Because of that I would love somebody rebutting my asserts. Until now, after years in RG and asking the same thing many times, nobody came along and refuted me. In my opinion, even if there are brilliant practitioners and researchers, with a lot of experience and knowledge, they do not have arguments, and because of this their silence.
Of course the rebuttal must be more than words.
I understand that these systems are damaging and misleading the MCDM process, allowing people to reach solutions that do not take into account the reality of a scenario.
Thank you for your answers, if any
Nolberto Munier