Hello all,
I am trying to do an agreement analysis to verify how similar are the time-series measurements taken by two devices. Basically I have 2 curves representing values measured over time with each device, and I want to say how similar these measurements are.
I have other metrics in my analysis, but I was looking into CMC (Kadaba, 1989) to be a global metric. I know it is often used in gait analysis literature for reliability analysis, where curves taken by the same measurement device, but in different days, are compared. This coefficient represents similarity between two curves, so I was considering using it as a metric of agreement between the two time-series measurements I have, one from each device. I was wondering if there is any statistical assumption behind CMC that prevents me from doing that, I couldn't find much about it.
Thank you!