What I am pondering with this question is whether nation-states enter into extraterritorial pacts (WTO, NAFTA, EU, MERCOSUR, etc.) solely on the basis of perhaps deriving economic benefit  from these liaisons; i.e., without giving consideration to the social and political implications of becoming inter-connected with other sovereign states, all of whom relinquish some of their autonomy to a supranational body.

This would, for instance, explain why Norway refuses to join the European Union citing the possibility of (a) loss of national sovereignty and (b) a diminishment of the quality of citizenship secured by Norway's Constitution (which establishes a 'horizontal union of free and equal citizens'); and yet Norway had no qualms about signing onto the European Economic Area (EEA) which, according to Erik Erikson ("Norway's Rejection of EU Membership has given the country less self-determination, not more" - http://blogs.lse.ac.uk/europpblog/2014/04/22/) weds Norway to the EU economically by granting it access to  Europe's internal market on an equal basis with EU member states.  Seemingly, Norway is willing to accept an economic union, but stops short of a political and social union with the EU member states.  In fact, the inability of EU members to agree on a European Constitution may be a reflection of other EU members having the same hesitance as Norway to become bound  politically and socially to each other.

In fact, one might view the "Margin of Appreciation" rule applied by the European Court of Human Rights wherein the Court bows to local customs (no matter how discriminatory these local practices may be) as the Court's recognition that member states are only fully committed to the economic benefits that can be derived from a union creating a market of over 450 million people.  Therefore, it is best for the Court to allow member states some wiggling room -- 'to cut them some slack'.

Gwen

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