In a regression, I'm using household income and household specific expenditures as independent variables, both with a natural logarithmic transformation, and I want to control them by the household size. I find in the literature that in that kind of cases, it is used the natural logarithm this last variable, but I don't get the logic. If I'm not wrong, the household size is the number of people living in the household, so i find that the interpretation would be very weird: an increase in 1% of the number of people leads to a x% in Y?

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