It is debatable question.

Let me expose what I think is the rationale of the assertion included in the question:

- International financial market access tends to be achieved by capital account liberalization (hint: it could be more complicated than that https://academic.oup.com/isq/article-abstract/58/2/308/1789417 ; https://www.degruyter.com/view/j/jgd.2014.5.issue-1/jgd-2013-0028/jgd-2013-0028.xml )

- Capital account liberalization is related with capital volatility Article How financial liberalization impacts stock market volatility...

- Volatility means short-term profitability (financial assets, imports) is preferred against long-term profitability (production, factories)

- Short-term profitability might rise FDI flows ( http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.477.4511&rep=rep1&type=pdf ), but FDI is not the same as fixed capital formation ( https://dolarizacion.ec/2018/02/27/inversion-extranjera-vs-inversion-extranjera-directa/ ) which tends to fall because of long-term profitability.

- P.S. FDI doesn't necessarily promote growth ( http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.494.5205&rep=rep1&type=pdf ) , but, without fixed capital formation (actual investment), economies don't grow Article On the Benefits of Capital Account Liberalization for Emergi...

Of course, trying to access to international markets, there could be tools and policies that reduce volatility and promote fixed capital formation. I think Kevin Gallagher "Regulating capital" is a superb intro to it.

ECONOMIC DISPARITY is common among developing economies. when the policy of inclusion and accessibility are implemented, people who benefited are the upper class. Where the economic disparity is more common and wide in development countries, the lower rung of society are mostly left behind. Even if the financial institutions are open to all and inclusion is to include all, these policies are less meaningful if poor people has no capital and the inability to be active player in the market.

ACCESSIBILITY. How meaningful is accessibility to the stock market when the majority of the people int he developing economies has not money to invest? How meaningful in financial inclusion, i.e. extension of credit in bank loans, when poor segment of people in the developing economies are not credit worthy or have no financial management background. Equal accessibility means equal access both to the rich and poor. Whi will benefit more? Obviously the rich more than the poor.

Nagalingam Nagendrakumar Paul Louangrath Diego Fernando Ramos Flor : thank you for your answers

Interesting discussion. Thank you!