It is admitted that the (-5/3) law of the turbulent energy spectrum in single-phase flow changes into a law around (-8/3) in bubbly flow. The fact remains that it is difficult to understand why this (-8/3) bubbly flow law remains unchanged with various void fractions and with bubbles of different sizes. It's counterintuitive, isn't it? Maybe there is a simple explanation that escapes me?
Lance and Bataille (1991) were the first to report, from their homogeneous bubbly turbulence experiments (JFM, 1991), that the (-5/3) law of the turbulent energy spectrum in single-phase flow changes into a law around (-8/3) in bubbly flow. They analyzed the spectral equation and succeeded, by simplifying it and by developing scale analysis, to explain the phenomenon. Many experimental works followed later, in particular in pipe bubbly flows, and yielded the same result : all confirmed the existence of almost (-8/3) in bubbly flow. The same for all the exprimental investigations