Neoclassical economics (and generally mainstream economics) considers the maximization of profits of firms as a presupposition for the economic equilibrium. Yet, according to its own equilibrium analysis, this is not met. Because, the maximization of profits takes place at the intersection of the total supply curve (marginal cost) with the marginal revenue curve coming from the total demand, and not with the total demand curve itself as neoclassicals argue.

How does orthodox economics explain this inconsistency?

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