Here's a statistical dilemma for me....

We use the alpha and power for sample size calculation, however, we do not directly enclose the beta error as we do for the alpha... what accounts for this paradox?

I understand that 1- beta = power.

But what is the explanation that beta itself is not considered and 1- beta is.

Might sound stupid and apologies for that but it's really bothering me

Thank you

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