We know how to calculate kinetic energy of a particle or an object having mass (m) travelling with some velocity (v) and we know how to calculate equivalent mass of that kinetic energy by using mass energy equivalence. In a similar way;
1) What amount of magnetic flux is associated with an electric charge particle (qe) traveling with some velocity (v)?
2) What is the equivalence of electric charge of that associated magnetic flux?
to answer this question please go through the link given to this question (answer is given in this paper)..
welcome....
Article MAGNETIC MONOPOLE THEORY
I do think You have to look at it as a force and energy in a field.The field energy is a potential field energy which is able to be converted into kinetic energy.
Hoping this is useable into your research
Kurt Wraae
@ Kurt Wraae
my dear Kurt Wraae... its not the mater of energy conversion...
first understand my question properly with utmost concentration...my question has another view and answer for that question is given in attached article..
thank you
I'm not a fan of magnetic monopoles in GR, but do recognize the action of dipoles that have a large separation like the magnetic field of a planet.
You asked a fairly elementary question.
Magnetic field B is given in Webers per square meter and Newtons per amp-meter.
So a Weber is one Joule / amp.
Then express your (qe)v in units of coulomb-meters / second which is an amp-meter.
Text books make magnetism look harder than it needs to be, although I still refer to them.
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