It's sure that a successful drug should be dosing-dependent in efficacy. While, is the dosing-dependent in safety study strictly required? When the dosing-independent occured in safety, how to explain this phenomenon. In my study (repeated 3 times), a compound for cancer exhibited dosing-independent. In different dose groups (1 mpk, 10 mpk, 25 mpk and 50 mpk), the body weight of mice decrease ~15% compared with placebo group. Someone can give me a answer or articles?
If I understand correctly it sounds like the intended effect was dose-dependent, but an off-target effect (weight loss) occurred to a similar degree (15%) at each dose. It might be that you are already at the maximum effect for this weight loss. That is, if you decrease the dose below 1 mg/kg they may lose less weight. For example, 0.1 mg/kg - 3% weight loss; 0.5 mg/kg - 8 % weight loss; 1 mg/kg - 15% weight loss; 10 mg/kg - 15% weight loss, and so on. However, this may mean that the dose that doesn't cause weight loss might be too low for therapeutic effects.