hat exactly is the experimental difference in applying the projection operator P to a spin 1/2 x system from that of its ortho-complement (i think that is the word) 1-P (1 being the identity operator) which itself is a projector of that same quantum state. I know that one converts the yes outcome, 'spin up' say, to a no outcome and vice versa (the no outcome in P corresponds to the yes outcome in 1-P of the same spin 1/2 particle which will be found as either spin or spin down but whether its designated as a yes or a no outcome depends on which of the two projectors are applied.
But is there an ontological difference, are they two distinct experimental contexts, or at least corresponding to two physically distinct ways of measuring the exact same quantum state?
And secondly are there any theories (probably speculative) out there which indicate whether there are possible counterfactual correlations between what result you get if you apply P, get a yes outcome (spin up), and whether in the 'morgenbesser sense' you still would have gotten a yes, had we used 1-P instead (and thus the opposite result, spin down) or a no (the same result, spin up)?
Moreover, if this is true or speculated to be true, is there any speculation or literature which theorizes as to whether this has anything to do with the particular probability values involved? (ie in this case the chance of yes for both P and 1-P are the same as the chance values for spin up and spin down here lets say are both 1/2 and thus equal)