Hey everyone, I hope someone can help me. Please!

I've carried out a spatial PCA using the adegenet package in R, following Dr. Jombart's tutorial (i.e. NAs in data replaced to mean allele frequency, etc.). My problem is with the interpretation of the variance explained by each component... Obviously it's not like a regular PCA where you need all the components together in order to explain 100% of the variance in data.

Here in sPCA it's easy to see (in the screeplot for example) that combining just a couple of principal components exceeds 100% of the variance.

Showing the summary for the sPCA:

[Call: spca.genind(obj = mi_genind, xy = mi_genind$other$xy, cn = data.graph,

scannf = FALSE, nfposi = 2, nfnega = 0)]

Scores from the centred PCA

_________var___________cum___________ratio____________moran

Axis 1___1.184406_____1.184406_____0.07550004____0.3562353

Axis 2___1.022800_____2.207206_____0.14069851____0.1799373

sPCA eigenvalues decomposition:

___________eig_______________var_______________moran

Axis 1_____0.15675044______1.0088656_______0.6214918

Axis 2_____0.08220275______0.7455009_______0.4410605

###################################################

So I want to have some sort of idea whether this analysis is meaningful to explain the pattern in variability. As Jombart says in the tutorial: "The maximum attainable variance by a linear combination of alleles is the one from an ordinary PCA, indicated by the vertical dashed line on the right [of the screeplot]". I could take that value as my 100% variance and calculate the percentage explained by my Axis 1 on the sPCA... but I'm still confused because doing this to just a couple of principal components and then combining them would exceed 100% of variance explained.

Thanks for any help you can give me!

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