I have a very specific question concerning modern human/neanderthal studies. As long as I understand, neanderthal trace in human genome is due to some recombinant loci. That means, neanderthal clonal genes (Y-chromosome, mt-DNA) were completely washed out from the modern human populations due to gene drift, but some recombinant loci still remain in the gene pool. Moreover, they exist in literally any non-African human person.

Discovering presence of neanderthal alleles in the sapiens genome became possible after scientists sequenced neanderthal genome. Thus, the location of the neanderthal alleles in Eurasian genomes is known and, perhaps, even available. That means, primers can be easily designed for these fragments and the "neanderthal" fragments should be relatively easy to sequence for any modern human.

That means, by sequencing these fragments for humans from the different parts of Eurasia one can reconstruct the underlining Neanderthal phylogeny, i.e. one can compare the neanderthals from West Europe, Caucasus, Central and East Asia, whose differences may well be much deeper in time than the differences between respective modern human lineages, which are thought to diverge 100 TY or similar. Should the existing differences between modern human populations be completely attributed to the divergence that started 100,000 TY? Or, perhaps, they at least partly root into the time of divergence among neanderthal geographic populations?

It sounds too simple, that means, most likely is something wrong and stupid in this logic, or evolutionary anthropologists already working on this. Or?

Would appreciate much for the comment.

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