I'm currently studying the interaction of a synthetic antimicrobial peptide with DNA using gel retardation assay. I was given pBR322 as the study material for DNA. I'm currently looking for the advantages of using pBR322 as part of the study. As this study is preceding one concerning the membrane active mechanism of the peptide to P. aerugionsa, does it make sense to say that it is because pBR322 carries ampicillin and tetracycline resistance gene which is commonly carried by multi-drug resistant (MDR) P. aeruginosa?