Hi.
Meta-anlysis and stats dummie here.
Recently I started to experience a little with MA and RevMan.
I did some simulations using the raw values at post intervention (both mean and Sd).
However, some authors instead using the values of post-intervention, prefer to use the difference between post and pre values. While I understand the process for the mean, I am having troubles understanding the process to the determine the variance/Sd.
Can someone give me a pratical example, step by step (I know it will be simple). Here goes an example.
Intervention X - BP (baseline): 145 ± 8; BP (post intervention): 130 ± 6; N=35
Control: BP (baseline): 146 ± 9; BP (post intervention): 139 ± 4; n= 25
So, for Intervention X, I would insert 15 (mean) and 35 (total), in RevMan. For control would be 7 (mean) and 25 (total).
What would be the Sd/variance in those cases?
" Variances were calculated from the pooled SDs of change scores in the intervention and control groups." - An example of the methodological description using by those authors.
Thanks a lot!