Dear colleagues. This is not a matter about mathematical questions, fields and the like that I do not understand, but about the following:
As a researcher in philosophy of science, I have read more than once - from qualified sources - and repeated that, unlike Newtonian mechanics, which assumes that macroscopic physical space is absolute, has three dimensions and is separated from absolute time, for general relativity space is a four-dimensional spacetime, and that time is relative to the position of the observer (due to the influence of gravity).
Now I find that wrong, having heard that, for the theory, time and the perception of time are different things. Specifically, that in the famous Einsteinian example (a mental or imaginary experiment) of twins, the one who is longer-lived when they meet again has perceived a greater passage of time. And if what has been different is the perception of time, and not time, then that would mean that objectively both have always been at the same point on the "arrow of time".
And it would mean that I have confused time, as an objective or "objective" dimension of spacetime, with one's perception of it. That is, if there were no observer, spacetime would still have its "time" dimension.
It follows that it is false that for general relativity time is relative (because it is a dimension of spacetime, which is not relative). Now, if this is so, how can the theory predict the - albeit hypothetical - existence of wormholes?
There is something I fail to understand: does the theory of relativity really differentiate time from the perception that an observer may have of it, and the example of twins refers to the latter?
If spacetime is only one - there are not several independent spacetimes - and it has objective existence, including its "time" dimension , how is it possible to travel - theoretically, according to the theory - through a wormhole to another part of it that has a different temporality (what we call past or future)?
Since it does not make sense to me to interpret that one would not travel to the future but to the perception of the future. And I rule out that Einstein has confused time with the perception of it.
Thank you.