I am working on SSR markers. I applied AMOVA and it showed 100% variation within a population and 0% variation among the populations. Is it possible to get this result? If not, what can be the possible reasons for this outcome?
Hi
Theoretically, it is possible, but it seems 1- either the studied populations were a single population 2- or the statistical calculations were wrong.
Best Regards
Amin
I think no. If your population has two or more subgroups (based on Population Structure Analysis) then there will be definitely some variation in between population and within population. 100% variation within population will be possible only when your population has only one subgroup.
Hope you got my point Yogita Bisht
A population is described by gene and genotypic frequencies; however, the measure of variation within the population is the amount of heterozygosity at the given locus. If there is two distinct populations with quite different genetic antecedents and selection history, both will vary with respect to gene and genotypic frequencies and amount of heterozygosity at the given locus. Therefore, it is almost impossible to get zero percent variation between population.
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