The Indo-European languages are, in the classical model, supposed to have spread into India, the Middle East and Europe from parts of Central Asia producing many of the modern languages in those areas. It is nevertheless difficult to find evidence. Historians many decades ago guessed that the language reached Europe via Neolithic farming from Anatolia and recent DNA supports that European farmers came from there. But did the language?
In fact, is there actually such a mother-language from which so many others originate or just similarities between neighbours?
I'm not a historian. I'm only interested in the (many) pieces that do not match the classic puzzles of antiquity on the territory of the present Romania. In light of these, I think history is close to a change of paradigm on Indo-Europeans.
I am delighted in expecting professionell answers and theories in the next time. Thanks, Hein
Hein, the connection between the Aryan language speakers, Iran and India, and speakers in Europe always seemed to me suspect, at least concerning a direct connection. Into this has to be fitted the Indo-European languages of Anatolia.
The indo-european original trunk -etnic and language- took a long time for its formation, and it is related with the geographical transformation of the Caspian Region. See my article "The Great Caspian Sea".-
Sergio, I will read it. But where do you think the Aryan side of this fits in and is it really a homogeneous group of any kind?
Hi Stanley. The "aryan problem" it is facinating. Because, itself is the creation of the caucasic stock, with its various etnics types. All that happened since the end of the last Glacial Period (18.000 B.C) onwards, in that ample area where was a Great semi-sald lake, with the time and reduction transformed into the actual Caspian See. In the borders, was the long "aryan drama of creation" (as it is related in the indoarayan miths).
There are other ways for languages to be transmitted of course. Although there is of course immense substance in your view, the Anatolian migration (home of Indo-European-Hittites and Luwain), which may have thereby transmitted Indo-European and a second later group via northern routes. Maybe? If Indo-European existed with a circular range covering Anatolia and central Asia, then this might be a coverall explanation-
- Badges
- Science topic
- Similar topics
- Linguistics
- Composition Studies
- Publication