11 November 2013 14 6K Report

This question puzzles me, because everybody asked this question first stresses, that the results are equivalent anyway and then, in practical applications, people often go for the F-values, although the F^2 values are more fundamental than the F values, and even more so for the standard uncertainties of F^2 and of F. Also there is an ugly convention for calculating sigma(F) values from sigma(F^2) values that produces a singularity and discontinuity at F=0 for the calculation of sigma(F) values from finite sigma(F^2). Moreover, the assumed normal distribution for fit residuals cannot be realized in case of refinement against F for the weakest intensities and this will bias the model parameters (Hirshfeld and Rabinovich 1973, Acta A29, 510). Given that the results are neverthelsess virtually the same it appears to me that refinement against F has very strong methodological disadvantages. Why then refine against F? What is your personal motivation for refinement against F?

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