10 October 2015 0 6K Report

 How do empirical coherence theories of value cash out the notion of “objectivity”? In other words, if some value is considered "objective" in a sense that turns on the relative “ease” in which a consensus is reached among moral agents (vis-à-vis Rorty), then it does not seem to me that universalizability can be an entailment of it. Is there a different way of looking at this problem?

Similar questions and discussions