Hi fellows,
Say I want to investigate the association between car preference and age. Then I have data from 100 people who like SUV, and another 100 who like classic models. As expected, A t-test shows that SUV lovers are significantly younger. The problems is that, apparently aging can change one's car preference but not vice versa, so age should logically be the IV and car preference the DV.
The issue may be simple as stat courses I've learned suggest a logistic regression, but recently I've seen the practice above (on some real variables) in several unpublished graduate-level manuscripts and would like to know whether there's any reason (that I do not know) to do this, or why even trained colleagues can fall into this trap.
Thanks
Meng