It seems often that philosophers are "hemmed in" by the 'parameters' of the views of psychologists OR is it the other way around? (or both)? (likely both).  In any case, philosophers seem to only be able to "tweek" the views of psychology, even in the gravest instances of theory failure. Let me refer you to a thread:

https://www.researchgate.net/post/Re_In_what_sense_if_any_can_psychology_be_a_science

(the top 5 posts in this thread -- is this an instance of what I am talking about?)

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