Is there a difference in stimulation index values between drug specific clones of hypersensitive patients and those drug specific clones derived from healthy naive volunteers by the technique of DCs-T-cells priming.
I noticed (in my project) that the first group show a higher stimulation index as compared to the second group. Has anyone noticed something similar? what is the possible explanation ?
Heterogeneity of the baseline phenotypic and genomic state of patients T cells and dendritic cells is the general answer. I believe that what you're seeing is normal variance. The age of the cells (older tends to be less responsive), the immune status of the patient (how many T-cells), concentration and other unknown factors. The cells also respond differently to different enhancers such as GM-CSF, IL-15, p38, etc. and the responses are different/variable among patients. When a patient is sampled and prepared for DC-T antigen targeting, there is a range of responses in the population compared to other patients - we aim to get their counts up to ca. 10^8 for administration.
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