04 July 2017 11 3K Report

Hello everyone, I am new to sliding mode control and interested in it very much. Today I come here with several questions, I hope you can give me a hand to my study, I am helpless and a little bit upset cos I couldn't slove those problems myself.Thank you very much!!! 

As we know, equivalent control is derived from the equation of dot(s)=0.Then we can solve the function of Ueq. But, in real sliding mode, dot(s) would not equal to zero cos nonlinear switching item works on it. I design the control law this way:U=Ueq0+Usw(Usw=K*Sgn(s)),and make conparison with U=K*Sgn(s). Through Matlab simulation, I find that using of the equivalent control method to design control law, the oscillation of dot(s) is smaller than using the control law of U=K*Sgn(s). The equivalent control method I mention here is add an item with  K*Sgn(s),so you can see it combines with two parts while another is just a single switching item. 

(1) Can we say that the method of equivalent control could ensure dot(s) more close to zero but not equal to zero ? I think in 1-sliding mode control, dot(s) could not be equal to zero, or , people don't have to put forward 2-sliding mode to avoid chattering. But we do get Ueq by letting dot(s)=0.Can anybody explain it to me? 

(2)In 1-sliding mode control, we use sdot(s)<0 to ensure sliding mode existance.However, it seems we can not use this way in 2-sliding mode control. So people have to develop new approaches to give the condition of sliding mode existance. In HOSM, I read two approaches, one is extend former system into a new system with auxiliary equations(Prof.Levant), the other is Prof.Slotine’s approach. I think it plays the role of making sure high sliding mode existance, just like that of sdot(s)<0 in 1-sliding mode control. But I am not sure if I am right.

(3)For high order sliding mode control,from my point of view, the wisdom is to increase the constrictions, then have the control U worked on the high order time-derivative of s, under the control U, ensure s and its time-derivative of s equal to zero(r-1), and prove it mathematically. s,dot(s),.....dot(s)(r-1)=0 could have more smooth performance. Do I understand it correctly?   

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