Can you have inertia without gravity and how do gravity and inertia work together to create the phenomenon of the ellipse?
Yes, inertia can exist without gravity. Inertia is the property of an object to resist changes in its state of motion unless acted upon by a force. This principle is articulated in Newton’s First Law of Motion, often summarized as an object in motion tends to stay in motion, and an object at rest tends to stay at rest, unless acted upon by an external force. Inertia is inherent in any object with mass and does not depend on the presence of gravity.
Gravity and inertia work together in celestial mechanics, particularly in the creation of elliptical orbits, as described by Kepler's laws of planetary motion.
I’ll break this down to a simplified explanation:
1. Inertia: A planet in space moves in a straight line due to inertia. If there were no other forces acting, it would continue on this linear path indefinitely.
2. Gravity: The gravity of the sun (or another central body) exerts a constant force on the planet, pulling it towards itself.
3. Elliptical Orbits: As a planet moves through space, its inertia wants to keep it moving in a straight line, but the gravitational pull from the sun continually attracts the planet, bending its path into an orbit. Without enough gravity, the object would not deviate from its straight path; without inertia, the object would simply fall straight into the sun. The balance of these two forces – inertia tending to carry the planet forward in a line, and gravity pulling it inward – results in an elliptical orbit around the sun.
The shape of the ellipse is determined by the balance between the forward momentum of the planet (due to inertia) and the inward pull of gravity exerted by the sun. When these two forces are perfectly balanced, the path of the planet forms an ellipse, with the sun located at one of the foci of that ellipse.
“Can you have inertia without gravity and how do gravity and inertia work together to create the phenomenon of the ellipse?”
- to answer scientifically to the question above it is necessary before to answer two questions – “what is “Inertia”?” , and “what is “Gravity”?”. Firstly the last questions were answered by Newton,
- in 1-st and 2-nd laws “what is inertia” – that every body, if is at rest in 3D space, or moves somewhere unidirectional with constant velocity, something resists to changing of this its state, and this resistance is “inertia”, which can be measured by using etalons as “measure of inertia/physical variable “inertial mass” m”;
- and to change the velocity or to force a body at rest to move [though that is changing of zero velocity], i.e. to accelerate the body with acceleration a, the body must be impacted by physical variable “force”, F, and F=ma.
Besides Newton had quantative ly characterized the physics effect that all bodies attract each other by some objectively existent fundamental Force “Gravity”, and gravitational interaction is proportional to fundamentally different from inertia variable – “gravitational mass”, so gravitational force F between, say, two bodies with masses m1 and m2 is proportional to m1m2.
- and, at that, from experiments it follows that the gravitational masses is proportional to inertial mass, so by introducing some metric coefficient, in this case, “gravitational constant G” these masses are equal.
However, again - the gravitational and inertial massesreally are fundamentally different properties/parameters of bodies, so really in this case the fundamental question exists - for what, some non-mystic reason the masses are proportional?
In mainstream physics this reason remains be completely mystic one, and so is scientifically answered only in the Shevchenko-Tokarevsky’s Planck scale informational physical model, in this case it is enough to read the paper
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/354418793_The_Informational_Conception_and_the_Base_of_Physics,
- where it is rigorously scientifically shown that particles – and so bodies – are some close-loop algorithms that run with frequencies ω, and move in the 4D space with metrics (cτ,X,Y,Z) of Matter’s absolute “Cartesian”, (at least) [4+4+1]4D spacetime with metrics (at least) (cτ,X,Y,Z, g,w,e,s,ct) with 4D momentums P=mc, and energies E=PC=mc2=ћω;
- and the SS&VT 2007 Planck scale informational physical model, https://www.researchgate.net/publication/365437307_The_informational_model_-_Gravity_and_Electric_Forces.
In the model quite scientifically rationally in complete accordance with experimental data, it is postulated that Gravity Force charge, i.e. the gravitational mass, “is written” in all particles algorithms [as all other fundamental Forces charges are written, though, but differently in different particles], and, at that, in all particles algorithms only one the algorithms’ “logical gate” [FLE in the model] is marked by Gravity.
So the Gravity charge “gravitational mass” is proportional to the same frequency ω, to which inertial mass is proportional also, and so the masses are proportional.
More about what are Gravity and inertia see the links above; why/how rather small masses move along some orbits around large masses see Harri Shore post above; though in this case it is necessary to point also, that the orbits also are determined very essentially by the angular momentum conservation law, and just the creating by this centrifugal force doesn’t allow, say, the small body to fall into other body.
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