Dear researchers,
I have some serum data, collected repeatedly, from 24 different subjects. The distribution of most of my data is known, and I can apply generalized estimation equation for my repeated observations. However, the residuals of some of my data do not follow any specific distribution.
When I use the change score in percent as an output variable in a linear mixed effect model (LMM), my residuals follow a normal distribution. I know there are some disadvantages of using percent change from baseline, as this might reduce statistical power, especially when the correlation between the baseline and post measures is low. I have not found any literature on the use of percent change from the baseline in LMM.
Considering we can account for the subject-specific intercepts in LMM, do the same results apply for this type of model?
My question is: in LMM, can I use percent change from baseline as an output variable to normalize my residuals? The correlation between my repeated observations is high (above 0.8). If anyone has any suggested literature, that would be highly welcome.
All the best