Let f(t_1,t_2,..t_n) = (f_1(t_1,..,t_n),...,f_N(t_1,...,t_n) a mapping from R^n to R^N
such that any f_i(t_1,..,t_n) , 1
This is g(s_1,s_2,..s_m) = (g_1(s_1,..,s_m),...,g_N(s_1,...,s_m). Sorry!
This conjecture is false: consider for example the functions
f(t_1,t_2) = (cos(t_1) cos(t_2), sin(t_1) cos(t_2)) from R^2 to R^2 and
g(s_1,s_2) = (1+ cos(s_1) cos(s_2), sin(s_1) cos(s_2)) from R^2 to R^2.
The image of f is the disk of radius 1 and center (0,0) in the plane while the image
of g is the disk of radius 1 and center (1,0).
The set of (t_1,t_2) such that there exists (s_1,s_2) s.t. f(t_1,t_2)=g(s_1,s_2) is not R^2 and has not an empty interior set.
This closes the question.
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