Australia and the United States are among the countries with highest motorisation rates in the world. As part of my research, a country-level panel data model to analyse household transport expenditure on purchase of private vehicles produces results in which the individual-specific or idiosyncratic effects are big in magnitude and negative in sign for the case of these two countries. In other words, in these countries, purchases of vehicles as percentage of total household expenditure is lower than what the model predicts. My question aims to attract other people's knowledge about particularities of a car-based culture in Australia and the US that might be linked to formal and informal institutions that make buying a car cheaper than in other rich countries. Does that make sense?
Well, given the characteristics of the data, it is retail and not wholesale which is part of the aggregated household expenditure on purchases. Corporate fleets or rental-cars will appear in a different item of household expenditure, which is "transport services", if there is money spent by the households. All the latter is in regard to the dependent variable. In terms of independent variables, I include some of what you mention as controls: for instance, yearly mean price per private vehicle imported in each country.I hope to have answered your question.
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