I know that the OR is a kind of 'default' option if you estimate associations in case-control studies. I was told (once upon a time) during my epi traning that the OR must be used, because the prevalence of a given disease is determined by the investigator through the selected sampling ratio of cases and controls (e.g. 1 cases=4 controls --> 20 % disease prevalence).

However, my understanding is that usually the odds of past exposure are compared between patients and controls. So why can't we calculate a prevalence ratio (=prevalence of the exposure compared between cases and controls) to make this comparison? This seem easier to calculate and easier to communicate.

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