Why do we have negative sign alternatively in right-sided Riemann-Liouville fractional derivative?. This is my question. I think I miss some small detail here. Could some one kindly help with this? Thank you very much.
Thanks for sharing the picture. That clears the situation. That particular definition is called Backward derivative. x is replaced by -x. See the kernels carefully and the limits of integration in those two definitions. It will become clear on its own.