high percentage of infected people with covid-19 in USA, Europe, china, Asia specially on those counteries which charactrized by high hyagyne and healthy system. why?
I agree. And in the UK a failure to use our huge expertise in mass communication to explain isolation and transmission routes. Also a mentality that mass death from communicable disease is something that happens to someone else. A kind of arrogance perhaps? But equally I don't wish to be too critical as leaders in the West are struggling with disparate priorities, information sources and conflicting models and advice. Perhaps there is something implicitly vulnerable about Western societies. As Likert and others have pointed out it is necessary to switch to authoritarian leadership at times of great crisis and we find that difficult, for good historical and constitutional reasons. Finally, it may be that the prevalence in the USA and Europe is only a precursor of even wider prevalence so we will all end up in the same place in the end.
Another factor occurred to me and that is completely speculative, but I wonder whether breathing diesel particulates and other noxious substances (in London we constantly exceed guidelines levels for quite a few pollutants) has weakened some people's lungs so that when the virus attacks the lungs they cannot recover. This would be one worth investigating by those with more knowledge than I.
As a result of the large and rapid infections which confused the health insurance system, in addition to that, the infections also included the medical staff