01 February 2016 3 5K Report

I am assisting a student with a measure of agreement for test-retest data using an ICC (2, 1) for absolute agreement.  The data is ordinal with a 5 point scale, and according to Streiner et al 2015's book, the ICC is superior in these situations than (for example) kappa or weighted kappa.

We've encountered a situation where despite nearly all scores being identical between test 1 and test 2, we have an ICC of .000.  As far as I can tell this is because there is almost no variation in the scores.  For both test 1 and test 2, nearly all of the answers given are "2".  I've queried with the student whether this suggests that there was something wrong with the question in the first instance, since if you ask a question and everyone answers identically, was it really worth asking in the first place?

However what I'd like to know is WHY the ICC is 0 despite nearly all responses agreeing.  My understanding is that ICC is a version of correlation adjusted for the fact that the different variables are measuring the same thing.  Correlation looks at associations between two variables.  If when plotted on a scatter plot scores on both variables are, with very few exceptions, all "2", then it is not possible to model a relationship between the two variables.  They're not associated with one another, they're functionally identical.

Is this correct?  Thank you for any help you can provide.

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