Dear Sirs,

The 1st law in Newton`s principia are now understood as two statements: the determination of inertial frame reference (if F=0 then a=0 and if F is not equal 0 then there is some body accelleration "a"); there is in nature at least one inertial frame reference. Theoretically I can understand it a little bit. As we have such a determination of inertial frame reference then the 2 nd Newton law is not directly followed from the 1 st law, or this determination is partly independent of the 2nd law. So it looks like logically good.

But what we have in experiment? I do not know whether there is any research on experimental determination of any particular inertial system (like International Celestial Reference System) using the 1 st Newton law. So in practice we use the 2 nd law (e.g. school example - foucault pendulum plane rotation). Could you clarify on the experimental and theoretical determination of inertial frame reference. You know there are teachers that see the 1st law as the consequence of the 2nd law.

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