I am trying to test the effect of a new drug on cancer cell line combined with a subleathal dose of Cisplatin. Is the subleathal dose, the dose that doesn't have any effect on the cells? or the dose that is just less than the IC50?
I think that sublethal dose is the dose that preserve cell viability so no effect on cell survival after treatment. A sort fo analogue of NOAEC based on viability. IC50 is the toxic concentration that kills 50% of the cells so it can not be considered sublethal because 50% could be considered moderato to hig toxicity.
One definition of Lethal Dose would come from a usually reputable source:
https://www.drugs.com/dict/lethal-dose.html
"Definition: the dose of a chemical or biological preparation (a bacterial exotoxin or a suspension of bacteria) that is likely to cause death; it varies in relation to the type of animal and the route of administration; when followed by a subscript (generally “LD50” or median lethal dose), it denotes the dose likely to cause death in a certain percentage (50%) of the test animals; median lethal dose is LD50, absolute lethal dose is LD100, and minimal lethal dose is LD05."
A sublethal dose would therefore have to be well BELOW the LD05. In clinical use a sublethal dose would be a dose of a toxic substance that is "insufficient to cause death." The therapeutic dose for most substances would then be well below even the sublethal dose. Having a dose that causes death in 1 out of 20 patients would be a horrendous overdose.
I could not find a reputable source that shows how you would measure a sublethal dose, but as I am a clinician I would easily miss sources that address cellular work. Sorry!