I quantified the number of cells expressing different markers with different genetic constructs, and in my control group there were no cells expressing Ki67, whereas in knockdown conditions Ki67 expression was induced. Typically for this sort of comparison I would use the one-way ANOVA (if all assumptions of this test are met), but this data doesn't fit the criteria for the ANOVA or the Kruskal-wallis so I am unsure where to go from here.
I am reluctant to perform a one-sample T test with the expected/hypothetical mean value set to zero, as I have three treatment groups (control, knockdown 1, knockdown 2).
Are there any wise statisticians that could advise me? I attach a plot with n=4, error bars=SEM
Thank you so much in advance!
EDIT - more specific details on the numbers:
% of GFP+ cells that are also Ki67+:
Ev: 0.00, 0.00, 0.00
58i: 2.027, 1.266, 0.00, 0.00
59i: 2.532, 1.493, 1.149, 0.00
Barplot with individual datapoints, means are above bars