IV(1) in my cross sectional observational study is a significant positive predictor for the DV in linear regression, and IV(2) is a significant negative predictor of the DV.

IV(1) has a positive pearson correlation with the DV, however when you do a partial correlation controlling for IV(2) the correlation between IV(1) and the DV becomes non-significant. (this relationship does not occur in the other direction, a.k.a correlation of IV(2) and DV, controlling for IV(1) remains the same and significant)

I'm confused as to why the correlation becomes non-significant when controlling for IV(2), but when both the variables are in predictors in the regression they remain significant independent of each other.

Why is this the case, and how would you suggest going about interpreting this?

Thanks!

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