Hello! I'm currently testing out a SEM model using R for the first time and I was wondering whether I might have some help interpreting my RMSEA output. I received an RMSEA value .044 (CI .041, .046) and a p-value of 1. Why would the p-value be 1?
Hi Jaime. The RMSEA p-value indicates the probability that the RMSEA is lower or equal to 0.05. Since the punctual estimator of the RMSEA is 0.044 and the upper limit of the 90%IC is 0.046, the probability of the RMSEA being higher than 0.05 is extremely low. Thus, the p-value is very close to 1 (it is not exactly equal to 1, but it approximates a lot and the rounding provides a 1). If you check the exact value of the p-value, you will probably find that it is something like 0.999... This is very good news for your RMSEA.
I agree with Pablo Nájera, but I think you must focus only on the value of RMSEA. It should be less than 0.08 and value lower than 0.05 is better.
But I see p value equal to zero where is the one you are talking about?
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