Why are you only interested in one direction of difference? A one tailed test says, essentially, that a difference in the opposite direction is ignorable, or is not a real difference at all.
If you have prior grounds for believing that the difference exists in one direction, then a Bayesian approach allows you to incorporate this prior knowledge into your analysis. If this is an intervention, then your prior could be nontrivial – that the change brought about by the intervention was larger than a difference that might be statistically significant but which would be too small to justify the cost of the intervention.
Well It's her research question so I suppose she can test what she wants. Lets not forget in the 1950's many psychologists argued that ALL tests should two tailed.
Here are some cites: https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&ei=bSgXYKGRDsrv5gKU2qOgBg&q=Only+use+2-tailed+tests+psychology+journals+history&oq=Only+use+2-tailed+tests+psychology+journals+history&gs_lcp=CgZwc3ktYWIQAzoHCAAQRxCwA1C05gNYjIwEYO-hBGgBcAJ4AIAByQGIAZgIkgEFMC43LjGYAQCgAQGqAQdnd3Mtd2l6yAEIwAEB&sclient=psy-ab&ved=0ahUKEwjh-_LklcfuAhXKt1kKHRTtCGQQ4dUDCAw&uact=5
David Eugene Booth 's final reference is a charming and perceptive review. I loved the authors' statement that Unaware of the depth of this tar pit, we undertook to prepare a short note on it.