Hello,

I ran GLMMs and Multilevel Bayesian model on the accuracy of participants. The p-value result (barely) significant (.048), while the Bayesian model does not include that factor as relevant (I used the "maximal" technique for mixed models by Barr et al, 2013).

I suggested that Bayesian tests are generally more conservative compared to p-values and require more evidence (Wetzels et al., 2011).

What are other possible explanations?

Thank you!

More Tommaso Currò's questions See All
Similar questions and discussions