We can't find any studies or journals to support that the tool is reliable to use for respondents in our research. Is it necessary that you must have norming to support the tool or scale used is appropriate or applicable for the good samples?

Reasons:

-when the tool used didn't said that it was applicable to the respondents for they we're ex. deaf unlike for every scales the norms are typically for people who had no disabilities.

-because the tool used haven't set a standard of levels to interpret the data like if the scores were higher than for example a score of 60 then it is good to say that the sample got high general self-efficacy, however, the tool used doesn't have the levels set accordingly to the scores got. So we believe that by norming, the norms of our data will have levels: low-average-high accordingly to the scores collected.

that if we have 40 respondents, double the size sample, so it would be 80 is the sample size thru which we will be going to have a norm. And that 40 will be our original sample. The 80 will be just used as for the norming purposes.

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