Dear colleagues working with effect sizes,

I’m studying the relation of Cohen’s d and Cohen’s f. See the appended file of my problem. In short: Cohen f and d are strictly related in the case of dichotomous case, but the relation depends on the proportions of cases in the subpopulations. Hence, d equals 2f only when p = 0.5, otherwise (and generally) d = f/(p(1-p) or f = d*p(1-p)

My point is that if, in the dichotomous/binary case, f is not sufficient alone to be comparable with d without the correction factor p/(1-p) = p1p2 taking case of the unbalance in the sample sizes in the subpopulations, why would f would give comparable (or "correct" estimate) in the polytomous case without some kind of correction for the unbalanced sample sizes? Could it be possible to think that, in the case of three groups, the correction could be something like p1p2p3 or parallel? Have anyone written of this matter? This puzzles be a bit. Any ideas?

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