I want to generate 10000 random numbers uniformly distributed in the open interval (0, pi/2). Is there any difference between:
1) Generating 10000 random numbers in the open interval (0,1) and then multiplying the resulting vector by pi/2,
2) Generating the numbers directly in the interval (0, pi/2)?
I am using the function runif() in R.
Hi Weber,
It is the same thing. It does mean that if you type the two commands, you will have the same observations, just that an observation drawn from the first command is equal in distribution to one from command 2. You can check this yourself using the following lines of code which compare the two densities that one can get with large samples.
## Takes a few second ##
N = 10000000
sample.1
Hi George,
I have checked and it is clear from the densities plots that the distributions are the same.
Thank 's a lot for your help.
Best regards!
Hi Weber,
From a mathematical point of view if X is a random variable with uniform distribution on [0 1], Y=pi/2 X has à uniform distribution on [0 pi/2]
Best Regards
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