I asked the following question of my old professor, Wolfgang Rindler, thinking it was probably stupid. However he responded by saying it was a "wonderful question". The question was, " Wouldn't a stretching or compression of

spacetime also result in a stretching or compression of the light used

to measure it? If that is the case, why would you expect to see

interferometric evidence of a gravitational wave?" His response was as follows, "A wonderful question! I suppose although the wavelengths stretch by the same factor as the distances between the mirrors, the transit times which were originally equal are now different (speed of light stays the same), so that a given outgoing wavecrest doesn't meet its partner when they return. Tell me if you agree!" I think i don't agree. Can anyone shed some light (ha, ha) on this?

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