Suppose that we test the null hypothesis H0: theta_1=theta_2=.....theta_k = 0 and consider one of two possible cases as regards homogeneity of the treatment effects.

a) they are all equal to each other

b) they are not equal to each other

It has been suggested that when we test this null hypothesis and reject it we are entitled to assert that there was a non-zero treatment effect in at least one trial.

I agree that If b is true then H0 is false. 

However if a is true then in that case the conventional fixed effects variance cannot be a valid estimate of the extent to which the weighted statistic will vary about the true mean because the variance induced by heterogeneity (systematic error) is not considered . Thus we have an invalid test of H0.

Thus either b) is true and there can be no type I error or a) is true and we will then be faced with an invalid test (when there is heterogeneity which happens in most cases)

When we test this null hypothesis and reject it we are therefore NOT entitled to assert that there was a non-zero treatment effect in at least one trial UNLESS heterogeneity was part of the variance estimate (e.g. IVhet model). The suggestion by biostatistics therefore that when we test this null hypothesis and reject it we are entitled to assert that there was a non-zero treatment effect in at least one trial IS false in the presence of heterogeneity because of faulty error estimation.

Any comments on this would be welcome

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