In case of bilateral palpable nondescended testicle which one of the two testicles need to be bringing down on his place? There are three options: a/ to bring down the more developed and located closer to the external inguinal opening; b/ to bring down the more immature and standing higher in the inguinal canal; or c/ both to be taken down at one stage. In the first case - to give the testicle a chance to develop faster; or, in the second case - to avoid a continuation of his regression? And something more – is it reasonable to perform simultaneously an orchiopexy by a baby of the age 6 – 12 months?