A 2 years old child was presented to me, who underwent surgery for torsion of the retained testicle.  A orhidopexy has been done with scrotal fixation of the testicle. Now, at the age of 2, there is no palpable testicle in the scrotum except for some elements. On ultrasound there is no evidence of testicular tissue as well. Controversy exists regarding excision of vanished remnants (S.E.Spires 2000).

Should be an surgical excision done and in what terms?