Here is an interesting question, but first the background info:
1. According to the available literature, panic attacks are accompanied by increased levels of orexin.
2. In my understanding the onset period of narcolepsy, during which time the orexin neurons are destroyed by the presumed autoimmune reaction, is about six months.
3. There is much anecdotal evidence (apparently unknown to any researchers) gained from speaking with narcoleptics that panic attacks are common in narcoleptics prior to "finalizing" (my term) of the disorder between the ages (approx.) of 25 and 35, even though symptom onset may have begun as early as infancy.
The question: How is this possible? If narcolepsy is a condition characterized by low or undetectable CSF levels of orexin, how can narcoleptics be having panic attacks, which are characterized by high orexin levels?
My surmise is that this phenomena is caused by the last dying orexin neurons working overtime to try to keep up the orexin supply, sometimes inadvertently oversupplying the peptide in the process. It is worth noting, however, that these panic attacks can go on for years before going away and the narcolepsy becoming symptomatically more pronounced.
Your opinions, corrections and suggestions are eagerly anticipated.
Note: Although I can provide a few citations, most of this is based on anecdotal information, including that provided by myself.